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How should you power up a Cisco router? (Source: Starting a Router)

A. Press the Reset button.
B. Turn the power switch to “on.”
C. Connect the fiber cable to another router.
D. Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket.

Correct Answer:
B. Unlike some of the smaller switches, Cisco routers have a power switch which should be utilized to power up the router.

Incorrect Answer:
A. There is no reset button on a router.
C. This does nothing with respect to power.
D. This only provides a means to obtain power; the power switch still needs to be turned to “on”.

How do you instruct a Cisco device to parse and execute an entered command? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. Press the Send key
B. Press the Enter key 
C. Add a space at end of the command
D. Wait 5 seconds after you enter the command

Correct Answer:
B. After a command is typed, pressing the Enter key executes the command.

Incorrect Answer:
A. There is no Send key.
C. This does nothing with respect to executing the command.
D. This does nothing.

Which Cisco router component is used primarily to store the startup-config file? (Source: Managing Router Startup and Configuration)
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. NVRAM
D. flash memory
E. configuration register

Correct Answer:
C. Non-Volatile RAM is primarily used to store the startup configuration file.

Incorrect Answer:
A. RAM stores the active configuration file, IOS and tables / buffers.
B. ROM stores power-on diagnostics, bootstrap programs and operating system software.
D. Flash memory stores the IOS version.
E. The router has a 16-bit software register, which is written into the nonvolatile memory.  The processor configuration register is used for the following:
Change software configuration register settings
Setting and displaying the configuration register value
Force the system into the bootstrap monitor
Select a boot source and default boot filename
Enable or disable the Break function
Control broadcast addresses
Set the console terminal baud rate
Load operating software from ROM
Enable booting from TFTP server

If a route for a network is in holddown and an update arrives from a neighboring router with the same metric as was originally recorded for the network, what does the router do? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)

A. ignores the update
B. increments the holddown timer
C. marks the network as “accessible” and removes the holddown timer
D. marks the network as “accessible” but keeps the holddown timer on

Correct Answer:
A. Holddown timers introduce a certain amount of skepticism to reduce the acceptance of bad routing information. If the distance to a destination increases (for example, the hop count increases from 2 to 4), the router sets a holddown timer for that route. Until the timer expires, the router will not accept any new updates for the route.

1-  How do you instruct a Cisco device to parse and execute an entered command? (Source: Introducing the Review  Lab)  

A. Press the Send key

B. Press the Enter key

C. Add a space at end of the command

D. Wait 5 seconds after you enter the command

Correct Answer:  B. After a command is typed, pressing the Enter key executes the command.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. There is no Send key.  C. This does nothing with respect to executing the command.  D. This does nothing.

 2- Which Cisco router component is used primarily to store the startup-config file? (Source: Managing Router Startup and Configuration)  

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. NVRAM

D. flash memory

E. configuration register

Correct Answer:  C. Non-Volatile RAM is primarily used to store the startup configuration file.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. RAM stores the active configuration file, IOS and tables / buffers.  B. ROM stores power-on diagnostics, bootstrap programs and operating system software.  D. Flash memory stores the IOS version.  E. The router has a 16-bit software register, which is written into the nonvolatile memory.  The processor configuration register is used for the following:  Change software configuration register settings  Setting and displaying the configuration register value  Force the system into the bootstrap monitor  Select a boot source and default boot filename  Enable or disable the Break function  Control broadcast addresses  Set the console terminal baud rate  Load operating software from ROM  Enable booting from TFTP server

 3- How could you obtain CDP information about a remote device that is not directly connected? (Source: Discovering Neighbors on the Network)

A. Use the command show cdp neighbors’ address.

B. Use the command show cdp neighbors’ hostname.

C. Use SSH or Telnet to access a Cisco device connected to the target device.

D. It is not possible to obtain CDP information about a remote device.

Correct Answer:  D. CDP only works between directly attached devices.

Incorrect Answer:  A. The “show cdp” command with a neighbor’s address is not a valid IOS command.  B. The “show cdp” command with a neighbor’s hostname is not a valid IOS command.  C. CDP works at layer 2 of the OSI model and has nothing to do with Telnet or SSH to the target device.

4- Which address type from IPv4 was eliminated in IPv6? (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. unicast

B. multicast

C. broadcast

D. everycast

Correct Answer:  C. Broadcast as a specific addressing type has been eliminated. Instead, support for multicast addressing has been expanded and made a required part of the protocol, and a new type of addressing called anycast has been implemented.

 5- Set of networks subject to translation using NAT

A. Static NAT

B. Dynamic NAT

C. Inside network

D. Outside global IP address

Answers:  C. The inside network, especially in small companies typically utilize private address space defined in RFC 1918.  These addresses are not routable on the Internet therefore require Network Address Translation (NAT) when communicating outside the LAN.

Incorrect Options:  A. Form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis.  B. Form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP addresses.  D. IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network (the translated IP address).

6- If a router does not match the appropriate address portions to a number on its routing table, it _____. (Source: Constructing a Network Address Scheme)

A. sends the packet back to the sender

B. passes the packet to the next router in the hierarchy

C. adds that number to its table

D. discards the packet

Correct Answer:  D.  

7  How many subnets are gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/20 into multiple /28 subnets? (Source: Implementing VLSM)

A. 16

B. 32

C. 256

D. 1024

Correct Answer:  C.  

 8. Which of the following describes the DHCP server provided by Cisco IOS? (Source: Using a Router as a DHCP Server)  

A. It is a full DHCP server

B. Its support is limited to assigning IP addresses to clients.

C. It has to get is DHCP information for a master DHCP server.

D. It has limited DHCP support and can only assign IP addresses and default gateways to clients.

Correct Answer:  A. The DHCP server provided by Cisco IOS is full service.  

9. How can you most effectively summarize the IP range of addresses from 172.168.12.0/24 through 172.168.13.0/24?

 A. 172.168.12.0/23

B. 172.168.12.0/22

C. 172.168.12.0/21

D. 172.168.12.0/20

Correct Answer:  A. This summarizes 172.168.12.0/24 – 172.168.12.0/24.  

Incorrect Answer:  B. This summarizes 172.168.12.0 – 172.168.15.255  C. This summarizes 172.168.8.0 – 172.168.15.255  D. This summarizes 172.168.0.0 – 172.168.15.255

10-A subnet mask tells the router to look at which portions of an IP address? (Source: Constructing a Network Address Scheme)

A. mask and host bits

B. host and network bits

C. host and subnet bits

D. network and subnet bits

Correct Answer:  D. The subnet mask tells the router which bits in the IP Address are part of the network and which bits are part of the host address.  With Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM) host bits can be borrowed (subnet bits) and become part of the network portion of the address.  Therefore the router looks at both the network and subnet bits.  

11. What are two characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two.) (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations )  

A. hierarchical

B. proprietary

C. open standard

D. similar to RIP

E. distance vector protocol

Correct Answer:  A. OSPF uses area to group the network into different hierarchies.  C. OSPF version 2 is defined in RFC 2328.

Incorrect Answer:  B. OSPF is standards based.  D. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol whereas OSPF is a link state routing protocol.  E. OSPF is a link state routing protocol.

12 -If a route for a network is in holddown and an update arrives from a neighboring router with the same metric as was originally recorded for the network, what does the router do? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)

A. ignores the update

B. increments the holddown timer

C. marks the network as “accessible” and removes the holddown timer

D. marks the network as “accessible” but keeps the holddown timer on

Correct Answer:  A. Holddown timers introduce a certain amount of skepticism to reduce the acceptance of bad routing information.  If the distance to a destination increases (for example, the hop count increases from 2 to 4), the router sets a holddown timer for that route. Until the timer expires, the router will not accept any new updates for the route.

13 -What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11000111? (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)

A. 218

B. 199

C. 179

D. 208

Correct Answer:  B. Represents 128 + 64 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 11000111 in binary  

Incorrect Answer:  A. Represents 128 + 64 + 16 + 8 + 2 = 11011010 in binary  C. Represents 128 + 32 + 16 + 2 + 1 = 10110011 in binary  D. Represents 128 + 64 + 16 = 11010000 in binary

14-  What does split horizon specify? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)  

A. that information about a route should not be sent in any direction

B. that information about a route should not be sent back in the direction that the original information came from

C. that information about a route should always be sent back in the direction that the original information came from

D. that information about a route should be sent back only in the direction that the original information came from

Correct Answer:  B. The split horizon rule which prohibits a router from advertising a route back out the interface from which it was learned. Split horizon is one of the methods used to prevent routing loops due to the slow convergence times of distance-vector routing protocols.

15 – The binary number 11101000111 converted into a decimal number, using powers of 2, is _____. (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)  

A. 1183

B. 1873

C. 1638

D. 1863

Correct Answer:  D. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 111010001111 in binary  

Incorrect Answer:  A. Represents 1024 + 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 10010011111 in binary  B. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 16 + 1 = 11101010001 in binary  C. Represents 1024 + 512 + 64 + 32 + 4 + 2 = 11001100110 in binary

16 – In which situation is an administrative distance required? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)

A. whenever static routes are defined

B. whenever dynamic routing is enabled

C. when the same route is learned via multiple routing sources

D. when multiple paths are available to the same destination and they are all learned via the same routing protocol

Correct Answer:  C. Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. Static routes pointing to a next hop address have an administrative distance of 1 by default (except when pointing to the exit interface which will have an administrative distance of 0, same as a connected interface).  B. Each routing protocol has its own administrative distance assigned by default which can be changed if required.  Examples of default administrative distances are as follows:      RIP – 120      OSPF – 110      IRGP – 100      EIGRP – 90  D. Each routing protocol has its own administrative distance defined, therefore administrative distance is not required if multiple paths are available all learned via the same routing protocol.

17 – What is the RSTP equivalent to the STP listening state? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. blocking

B. listening

C. discarding

D. forwarding

Correct Answer:  C. In a stable topology with consistent port roles throughout the network, the RSTP ensures that every root port and designated port immediately transition to the forwarding state while all alternate and backup ports are always in the discarding state (equivalent to blocking in 802.1D). The port state controls the operation of the forwarding and learning processes.  The discarding state maps to three different states in 802.1D STP, namely: blocking, listening and disabled.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. This is a stable state in which the data frames are NOT forwarded out the interface.  B. This is a transitory state where data frames are not forwarded.  D. This is a stable state where data frames are forwarded and MAC addresses are learned based on frames received.

 18 – Which statement is true of a port in the listening state? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. The port is able to check for BPDUs and populate the MAC table.

B. The port is able to check for BPDUs, but not yet populate its MAC table.

C. The port is able to populate its MAC table, but not yet forward user frames.

D. The port is able to forward user frames, but not yet populate its MAC table.

Correct Answer:  B. This is a transitory state within STP where data frames are not forwarded nor is the MAC table populated.

 19. Which of the following is a customized text that is displayed before the username and password login prompts? (Source: Switch Security)

A. Message Of the Day

B. Login banner

C. Access warning

D. User banner

E. Warning message

Correct Answer:  B. A login banner is displayed before the username and password prompt logins.  To create a login banner, you need to configure a delimiting character, which notifies the system that the following text string is to be displayed as the banner, and then the text string itself. The delimiting character is repeated at the end of the text string to signify the end of the banner. The delimiting character can be any single character in the extended ASCII character set, but once defined as the delimiter, that character cannot be used in the text string making up the banner.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. The configured MOTD banner is displayed before the login prompt on the terminal whenever a user logs in to a router or switch.  C. Access warning  D. User banner  E. Warning message

20 – With RSTP, which two port roles are included in the active topology? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. root and alternate

B. root and designated

C. alternate and backup

D. designated and backup

Correct Answer:  B. The RSTP provides rapid convergence of the spanning tree by assigning port roles and by determining the active topology. The RSTP builds upon the IEEE 802.1D STP to select the switch with the highest switch priority (lowest numerical priority value) as the root switch.

21 – Which term commonly describes the endless flooding or looping of frames? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. flood storm

B. loop overload

C. broadcast storm

D. broadcast overload

Correct Answer:  C. A broadcast storm creates excessive traffic and degrades network performance. Errors in the implementation of the protocol  stack or incorrect network configuration can cause a broadcast storm.

22 – Regarding STP, what is the state of a nondesignated port? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. blocking

B. learning

C. listening

D. forwarding

Correct Answer:  A. This is a stable state in which the data frames are NOT forwarded out the interface.  All nondesignated ports are in blocking state.  

Incorrect Answer:  B. This is a transitory state where data frames are not forwarded, but MAC addresses are learned based on frames received.  C. This is a transitory state where data frames are not forwarded.  D. This is a stable state where data frames are forwarded and MAC addresses are learned based on frames received.

23 – Which of the following is the most secure method of remotely accessing a network device? (Source: Switch Security)

A. http

B. telnet

C. ssh

D. rmon

E. snmp

Correct Answer:  C. The most secure as passwords are encrypted before they are sent across the network.

Incorrect Answer:  A. Not secure as passwords are sent across the network in clear text.  B. Not secure as passwords are sent across the network in clear text.  D. Remote Monitoring (RMON) is a standard monitoring specification that enables various network monitors and console systems to exchange network-monitoring data. RMON provides network administrators with more freedom in selecting network-monitoring probes and consoles with features that meet their particular networking needs.  RMON uses SNMP with its own MIB (Management Information Base) format to collect statistics.  E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an application layer protocol that facilitates the exchange of management information between network devices. It is part of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol suite. SNMP enables network administrators to manage network performance, find and solve network problems, and plan for network growth.  SNMP lacks any authentication capabilities, which results in vulnerability to a variety of security threats. These include masquerading occurrences, modification of information, message sequence and timing modifications, and disclosure. Masquerading consists of an unauthorized entity attempting to perform management operations by assuming the identity of an authorized management entity. Modification of information involves an unauthorized entity attempting to alter a message generated by an authorized entity so that the message results in unauthorized accounting management or configuration management operations. Message sequence and timing modifications occur when an unauthorized entity reorders, delays, or copies and later replays a message generated by an authorized entity. Disclosure results when an unauthorized entity extracts values stored in managed objects, or learns of notifiable events by monitoring exchanges between managers and agents.

24 – When you use the show interface command to display the status and statistics for the interfaces configured on a Catalyst switch, which output field indicates the MAC address that identifies the interface hardware? (Source: Starting a Switch)

 A. MTU 1500 bytes

B. Hardware is … 10BaseT

C. Address is 0050.BD73.E2C1

D. 802.1d STP State: Forwarding

Correct Answer:  C. This is the MAC address or Hardware Address.  It is 48 bits in length with the first 24 bits being the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI).  It is a layer 2 address.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. This indicates the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU).  B. This indicates the media type.  D. This indicates the spanning tree state.  It can be Forwarding, Blocking, Learning, Listening or Disabled.

25 – Which term describes multiple copies of a frame arriving on different ports of a switch? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. flood storm

B. multiple frame transmission

C. MAC database instability

D. loop overload

Correct Answer:  C. This causes the switch to update the port where it learned the MAC address of the source packet every time it receives a packet on a different source port causing MAC database instability.

26 – When you use the show interface command to display the status and statistics for the interfaces configured on a Catalyst switch, which output field indicates the MAC address that identifies the interface hardware? (Source: Starting a Switch)  

A. MTU 1500 bytes

B. Hardware is … 10BaseT

C. Address is 0050.BD73.E2C1

D. 802.1d STP State: Forwarding

Correct Answer:  C. This is the MAC address or Hardware Address.  It is 48 bits in length with the first 24 bits being the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI).  It is a layer 2 address.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. This indicates the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU).  B. This indicates the media type.  D. This indicates the spanning tree state.  It can be Forwarding, Blocking, Learning, Listening or Disabled.

 27 – Which show command requires that you have privileged EXEC mode access? (Source: Starting a Switch)

A. show ip

B. show version

C. show running

D. show interfaces

Correct Answer:  C. Only available in privileged EXEC mode.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. This is an incomplete command.  B. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode.  D. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode.

28 What are two major benefits of adding a bridge to a network? (Choose two.) (Source: Solving Network Challenges with Switched LAN Technology)

A. isolating potential network problems to specific segments

B. increasing the speed of a network

C. extending a LAN to cover greater distances by joining multiple segments

D. creating fewer collision domains

E. forwarding data frames between LAN segments

Correct Answer:  A. isolating potential network problems to specific segments  C. extending a LAN to cover greater distances by joining multiple segments

Incorrect Answer:  B. A bridge will not increase the speed of the network, the physical medium of the end stations remain the same.  D. creating fewer collision domains  E. forwarding data frames between LAN segments

 29 – When a single computer with one IP address has several websites open at once, this is called _____. (Source: Understanding TCP/IP’s Transport Layer)

A. windowing

B. session multiplexing

C. segmenting

D. connection-oriented protocol

Correct Answer:  B. Combining multiple sessions for transmission over a single network connection in order to conserve the operating system’s resources.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. A sliding window is used by TCP to allow more than one packet to be sent without having receive an acknowledgement.  C. A segment is a specially-configured subset of a larger network. The boundaries of a network segment are established by devices capable of regulating the flow of packets into and out of the segment, including routers, switches, hubs, bridges, or multi-homed gateways (but not simple repeaters).  D. TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol.

30 – If the POST tests complete successfully on a Catalyst switch, what display could you see on the console? (Source: Starting a Switch)

A. the > prompt

B. the privileged EXEC prompt

C. the Management Console logon screen

D. a list of commands available on the switch

Answers:  A. By default the a switch boots into user EXEC mode.  

Incorrect Options:  B. Prior to receiving the privileged EXEC prompt, the user must successfully execute the “enable” command from user EXEC mode.  C. the Management Console logon screen  D. This is displayed when the “?” is entered.

 31 – Which information does the show vlan command display? (Source: Implementing VLANs and Trunks)

A. VTP domain parameters

B. VMPS server configuration parameters

C. which ports are configured as trunks

D. names of the VLANs and the ports assigned to the VLANs

Correct Answer:  D. The “show vlan” command displays VLAN names and ports assigned to those VLANs.

 31 – What are two reasons for using 802.1Q? (Choose two.) (Source: Implementing VLANs and Trunks)

A. to allow switches to share a trunk link with non-trunking clients

B. to allow clients to see the 802.1Q header

C. to provide inter-VLAN communications over a bridge

D. to load-balance traffic between parallel links using the Spanning Tree Protocol

E. to provide trunking between Cisco switches and other vendor switches

Correct Answer:  A. to allow switches to share a trunk link with non-trunking clients  E. Since 802.1Q is an IEEE Standard, it allows for interoperability between multiple vendors devices

 32 – Which CLI prompt indicates that you are working in privileged EXEC mode? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

 A. hostname#

B. hostname>

C. hostname-exec>

D. hostname-config

Correct Answer:  A. A “#” following the hostname indicates you are working in privileged exec mode.

Incorrect Answer:  B. A “>” following the hostname indicates you are in user EXEC mode.  C. This would be the prompt in user EXEC mode if the hostname was hostname-exec.  D. This is not a valid prompt.  All prompts either have a “>” or a “#” at the end.

33 – What are the two most common IPv4-to-IPv6 transition techniques? (Choose two.) (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

 A. IPv6 NAT

B. dual stack

C. 6to4 tunnels

D. IPv6 mobile

Correct Answer:  B. dual stack  C. 6to4 tunnels

34- Which two pieces of information are included in a CDP update packet? (Choose two.) (Source: Discovering Neighbors on the Network)

A. platform

B. routing updates

C. device identifiers

D. MAC Address list

E. link speed

Correct Answer:  A. Platform TLV (Type-Length-Value) describes the hardware platform name of the device.  C. Device-ID TLV (Type-Length-Value) identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Incorrect Answer:  B. Not part of a CDP update packet.  D. Not part of a CDP update packet.  E. Not part of a CDP update packet.

35 – Which two statements are true regarding dual stack? (Choose two.) (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. A new API replaces gethostbyname and gethostbyaddr calls.

B. Tunneling is automatic.

C. Dual stack prefers IPv4 over IPv6.

D. You cannot use IPv4 while converting to IPv6.

E. The stack to use is chosen based on destination address.

Correct Answer:  A.  E.

36 – How can you most effectively summarize the IP range of addresses from 10.1.32.0 through 10.1.35.255?

A. 10.1.32.0/23

B. 10.1.32.0/22

C. 10.1.32.0/21

D. 10.1.32.0/20

Correct Answer:  B. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.35.255.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.33.255  C. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.39.255

37-How do you start a Catalyst 2950 series switch? (Source: Starting a Switch)  

A. Press the on/off switch.

B. Power up the redundant power supply.

C. Connect a network cable to another switch on the network.

D. Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket.

Correct Answer:  D. A Catalyst 2950 series switch does NOT have an on/off switch, hence attaching the power cable to the switch starts the Catalyst 2950 series switch.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. A Catalyst 2950 series switch does NOT have an on/off switch.  B. A Catalyst 2950 switch does not support a redundant power supply.  C. This does nothing with regards to powering on the switch.

Período 11/02 à 17/02/2014

ICND 2

1- Which Cisco IOS command should you use to set the clock speed to 64 kbps on a serial interface on a Cisco router? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. clock rate 64

B. clock speed 64

C. clock rate 64000

D. clock speed 64000

Correct Answer:  C. The parameter for this command is specified in bits per second (bps).  

Incorrect Answer:  A. The parameter for this command is specified in bits per second (bps), hence this command would only set the clock speed to 64 bps not 64 kbps.  B. This is not a valid IOS command.  D. This is not a valid IOS command.

2- OSPF routes packets within a single _____. (Source: Implementing OSPF)

A. area

B. network

C. segment

D. autonomous system

Correct Answer:  D. The set of OSPF routers in an organization defines an OSPF autonomous system (AS). By default, only OSPF routes corresponding to directly connected network segments are propagated within the AS.

3- Which Cisco IOS command creates a message to be displayed upon router login? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. hostname hostname

B. banner motd message

C. hostname interface description

D. description interface description

Correct Answer:  B. This is known as banner message of the day (motd) which will display a banner upon router login.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This command assigns the name “hostname” to the router.  C. This is not a valid IOS command, there are too many parameters.  The “hostname” command only accepts one parameter which is the hostname being assigned to the router.  D. This command allows will place “interface description” as the description for the specific interface the command is under.

4- When a single computer with one IP address has several websites open at once, this is called _____. (Source: Understanding TCP/IP’s Transport Layer)

A. windowing

B. session multiplexing

C. segmenting

D. connection-oriented protocol

Correct Answer:  B. Combining multiple sessions for transmission over a single network connection in order to conserve the operating system’s resources.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. A sliding window is used by TCP to allow more than one packet to be sent without having receive an acknowledgement.  C. A segment is a specially-configured subset of a larger network. The boundaries of a network segment are established by devices capable of regulating the flow of packets into and out of the segment, including routers, switches, hubs, bridges, or multi-homed gateways (but not simple repeaters).  D. TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol.

5- Which Cisco IOS command is used to return to user EXEC mode from the privileged EXEC mode? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. exit>

B. quit

C. disable

D. userexec

Correct Answer:  C. You can use the disable command to exit privileged EXEC mode and return to user EXEC mode.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This it not a valid IOS command.  If “exit” were to be entered by itself without the “>” sign, it would perform the same function as the “quit” command.  B. This command exits the router completely, both privileged EXEC and user EXEC mode.  D. This is not a valid IOS command.

6- When you use the show interface command to display the status and statistics for the interfaces configured on a Catalyst switch, which output field indicates the MAC address that identifies the interface hardware? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. MTU 1500 bytes

B. Hardware is … 10BaseT

C. Address is 0050.BD73.E2C1

D. 802.1d STP State: Forwarding

Correct Answer:  C. This is the MAC address or Hardware Address.  It is 48 bits in length with the first 24 bits being the Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI).  It is a layer 2 address.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. This indicates the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU).  B. This indicates the media type.  D. This indicates the spanning tree state.  It can be Forwarding, Blocking, Learning, Listening or Disabled.

7- Which access level allows a person to access all router commands and can be password protected to allow only authorized individuals to access the router? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)  

A. user EXEC level

B. setup EXEC level

C. enable EXEC level

D. privileged EXEC level

Correct Answer:  D. Privileged EXEC also know as privilege level 15.  Because many of the privileged commands set operating parameters, privileged access should be password protected to prevent unauthorized use. The privileged command set includes those commands contained in user EXEC mode, as well as the configure command through which you can access the remaining command modes. Privileged EXEC mode also includes high-level testing commands, such as debug.  It can and should be password protected since it is the level that allows configuration changes to be made to the router.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. After you log in to the router, you are automatically in user EXEC command mode. The EXEC commands available at the user level are a subset of those available at the privileged level. In general, the user EXEC commands allow you to connect to remote devices, change terminal settings on a temporary basis, perform basic tests, and list system information.  B. This is the EXEC level entered after first-time startup, an interactive dialog called the System Configuration Dialog appears on the system console.  C. There is no enable EXEC level, although you use the enable command from user EXEC level to get to privileged EXEC level.

8- Which component of security ensures the data has not been tampered with? (Source: Introducing VPN Solutions)

A. Authentication

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Anti-Playback

Correct Answer:  B. Deals with protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction.

ICND 1

1- Which organization offers certification for interoperability between vendors of 802.11 products? (Source: Exploring Wireless Networking)  

A. Wi-Fi

B. IEEE

C. EMA

D. WISC

Answers:  A The Wi-Fi Alliance is a nonprofit international association formed in 1999 to certify interoperability of wireless Local Area Network products based on IEEE 802.11 specifications.  

Incorrect Options:  B. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers, Inc. governs 802.11 standards.  C. Stands for Electronic Messaging Association which was formed to advance wireless messaging solutions for the enterprise.  D. WISC

2- Which three are the steps to secure a WLAN? (Choose Three) (Source Understanding WLAN Security)?

A. Encryption for providing privacy and confidentiality

B. Authentication to ensure that legitimate clients and users access the network via trusted access points

C. Controls transmit power to limit the AP access range to the property boundaries of the parent organization

D.Protection from security risks and availability with intrusion detection and intrusion protection systems for WLANs

Answers:  A. Encryption for providing privacy and confidentiality  B. Authentication to ensure that legitimate clients and users access the network via trusted access points  D.Protection from security risks and availability with intrusion detection and intrusion protection systems for WLANs  

Incorrect Options:  C. Controls transmit power to limit the AP access range to the property boundaries of the parent organization

3- What are three characteristics of Ethernet 802.3? (Choose three.) (Source: Understanding Ethernet)

A. based on the CSMA/CD process

B. a standard that has been replaced by Ethernet II

C. specifies the physical layer (Layer 1)

D. developed in the mid-1970s

E. specifies the MAC portion of the data link layer (Layer 2)

F. also referred to as thick Ethernet

Correct Answers:  A. CSMA/CD stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detect.  D. United States Department of Defense (DOD) performed research.  The Defense Advanced Research Project Agency (DARPA) was the group performing the research.  The outcome was ARPANET which later became the Internet.  Mainly centered around a mainframe with unintelligent terminals communicating with the host.  E. Ethernet operates at Layer 2 (datalink layer) of the OSI model.  

Incorrect Answers:  B. 802.3 and Ethernet II have different frame formats.  C.Ethernet works at layer 2 (datalink layer)  F.10BASE-5 within the 802.3 standard is thickwire coaxial cable.

4- Which two of these addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose two.) (Understanding TCP/IP’s Internet Layer)

A. 10.215.34.124

B. 127.16.71.43

C. 172.17.10.10

D. 225.200.15

Correct Answers:  A. Private Addresses are defined in RFC 1918 and are in the range 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 and 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255  C. Private Addresses are defined in RFC 1918 and are in the range 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255 and 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255  

Incorrect Answers:  B. 127.16.71.43 – This is a loopback address as loopback addresses fall in the range 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255  D. 225.200.15.10 – This is a multicast address as multicast addresses fall in the range 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255

5- How many bits are in an IPv4 address? (Source: Understanding TCP/IP’s Internet Layer)

A. 16

B. 32

C. 48

D. 64

E. 128

Correct Answers:  B. There are 32 bits represented as 4 octets in an IPv4 address.

Incorrect Answers:  A. 16  C. 48 – There are 48 bits in a MAC address.  D. 64  E. 128 – There are 128 bits in a IPv6 address.

 6-Encapsulates the network layer packet in a frame

A. Network layer

B. Datalink layer

C. Physical layer

Correct Answers:  B. When moving down the OSI model, the datalink layer encapsulates the network layer packet prior to sending the data to the physical layer.  

Incorrect Answers:  A. When moving down the OSI model, the network layer encapsulates the transport layer segment prior to sending the data to the datalink layer.  C. Specifies electrical signaling and hardware interface.  This includes voltage levels, data rates, maximum transmission distances and physical connectors.  Sends bits between peer physical layers.

7- Occurs when RF waves are soaked up by walls.

A. Absorption

B. Reflection

C. Scattering

Answers:  A. Occurs when RF waves are soaked up by walls.

Incorrect Options:  B. Occurs when radio frequency (RF) waves bounce off metal or glass surfaces.  C. Occurs when RF waves strike an uneven surface and are reflected in many directions.

CCNA

1- Provides applications for file transfer, network troubleshooting, and Internet activities, and supports the network

A. Physical layer

B. Datalink layer

C. Internet layer

D. Transport layer

E. Application layer

Correct Answer:  E. Provides applications for file transfer, network troubleshooting, and Internet activities, and supports the network.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. Specifies electrical signaling and hardware interface.  This includes voltage levels, data rates, maximum transmission distances and physical connectors.  Sends bits between peer physical layers.  B. Provides transport of data across a physical link.  Specifies topology and hardware (physical) addressing.  Consists of two sublayers, the upper layer being Logical Link Control (LLC) and the lower layer.  C. Provides routing of data from the source to a destination by defining the packet and addressing scheme, moving data between the data link and transport layers, routing packets of data to remote hosts, and performing fragmentation and reassembly of data packets  D. Establishes a reliable communication stream between a pair of systems.  Responsible for end-to-end communications.  Deals with issues such as reliable service and flow control.  Data delivery can be connection-oriented (I.e. TCP) or connectionless (I.e. UDP).  Reliable transport uses windowing and a connection-oriented relationship between end systems.  Sends segments between peer transport layers.

2- Encodes the data-link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium (usually a wire)

A. Network layer

B. Datalink layer

C. Physical layer

Correct Answer:  C. Specifies electrical signaling and hardware interface.  This includes voltage levels, data rates, maximum transmission distances and physical connectors.  Sends bits (1s and 0s) between peer physical layers.  

Incorrect Answer:   A. Establishes the connection between two end nodes and provides path selection.  This is where routing takes place.  Routing protocols are used to select optimal paths through the network.  Network layer addresses or virtual / logical addresses exist at this layer.  Sends packets between peer network layers.  B. Provides transport of data across a physical link.  Specifies topology and hardware (physical) addressing.  Consists of two sublayers, the upper layer being Logical Link Control (LLC) and the lower layer.

2- Which of the following four attacks are classified as access attacks? (Source: Securing the Network)

A. password attacks

B. DDoS

C. Trojan horse

D. Love Bug

Correct Answer:  A. A brute force attack that uses common words as possible passwords or decryption keys and may provide a more efficient way of discovering the user’s code. Sophisticated dictionary attacks sort words by frequency of use and start with the most likely possibilities; for example, names of people, sports teams, pets and cars.  They are classified as access attacks.   C. A destructive program that masquerades as a benign application. Unlike viruses, Trojan horses do not replicate themselves but they can be just as destructive.  

Incorrect Answer:   B. An attack in which a multitude of compromised systems attack a single target, thereby causing denial of service for users of the targeted system. The flood of incoming messages to the target system essentially forces it to shut down, thereby denying service to the system to legitimate users.   D. A famous virus that arrived as an e-mail attachment using the “double extension trick.” The file name was “I LOVE YOU.TXT.vbs.” The .vbs extension slipped by users who thought it was a safe text (.TXT) file. Victims using Microsoft Outlook spread the virus to everyone in their address book. In May 2000, the Love Bug replicated itself very quickly to countless users worldwide causing more than $6 billion dollars worth of damage.

3- Which three statements about TCP are accurate? (Choose three.) (Source: Understanding TCP/IP’s Transport Layer)

A. TCP operates at Layer 3 of the TCP/IP stack.

B. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol.

C. TCP provides no error checking.

D. TCP packets are numbered and sequenced so that the destination can reorder packets and determine if a packet is missing.

E. TCP provides no recovery service.

F. Upon receipt of one or more TCP packets, the receiver returns an acknowledgement to the sender indicating that it received the packets.

Correct Answer:  B. TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless.  D. TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements.  F. A TCP acknowledgement specifies the sequence number of the next octet the receiver expects to receive  

Incorrect Answer:  A. TCP operates at Layer 4 of the OSI model.  C. TCP provides reliable data delivery and therefore has error checking.  E. TCP provides reliable data delivery and therefore has a recovery service.

4- What are two major benefits of adding a bridge to a network? (Choose two.) (Source: Solving Network Challenges with Switched LAN Technology)

A. isolating potential network problems to specific segments

B. increasing the speed of a network

C. extending a LAN to cover greater distances by joining multiple segments

D. creating fewer collision domains  E. forwarding data frames between LAN segments

Correct Answer:  A. isolating potential network problems to specific segments  C. extending a LAN to cover greater distances by joining multiple segments  

Incorrect Answer:  B. A bridge will not increase the speed of the network, the physical medium of the end stations remain the same.  D. creating fewer collision domains  E. forwarding data frames between LAN segments

Período 06/02 à 10/02/2014

1- Indicates how well the network can accommodate more users or data transmission requirements

A. Speed
B. Cost
C. Security
D. Availability
E. Scalability
F. Reliability
G. Topology

Correct Answer: E. Indicates how well the network can accommodate more users or data transmission requirements.

Incorrect Answer: A. Indicates how fast data is transmitted over the network. B. Indicates the general price of components, installation, and maintenance of the network. C. Indicates the protection level of the network itself and the data that is transmitted. D. Indicates how easily users can access the network. F. Indicates how dependable the network is. G. Indicates the structure of the network.

2- Which two statements about wireless networks are accurate? (Choose two.) (Source: Exploring the Functions of Networking)

A. Instead of cables, wireless communication uses RFs or infrared waves to transmit data.

B. To receive the signals from the access point, a computer needs to have a wireless adapter card or wireless NIC.

C. For wireless LANs, a key component is a router, which propagates signal distribution.

D. Wireless networks are not very common, and generally only large corporations use them.

Correct Answer: A. Wireless networks utilize RF (Radio Frequency) or infrared waves. B. Rather than a typical RJ-45 ethernet connection, wireless connectivity requires a special wireless adapter card or wireless NIC.

Incorrect Answer: C. Routers do not propagate signals. D. Wireless networks are common place in homes as part of a home network.  For the home user, wireless has become popular due to ease of installation, and location freedom with the gaining popularity of laptops.

 3- What is the purpose of a switch? (Source: Exploring the Functions of Networking)

A. to connect separate networks and filter the traffic over those networks so that the data is transmitted through the most efficient route.

B. to choose the path over which data is sent to its destination.

C. to serve as the end point in the network, sending and receiving data.

D. to provide network attachment to the end systems and intelligent switching of the data within the local network.

Answer: D. A switch is a hardware device that joins multiple computers together within one local area network (LAN).

Incorrect Options: A. This is the function provided by a router. B. A router decides how to forward packets based on internal routing tables. C. Workstations/PCs are typically the end points on the network with a switch being used as the access point

4- What identifies the logical circuit between the router and the local Frame Relay switch? (Source: Establishing a WAN Connection with Frame Relay)

A. a DLCI

B. an LMI signal

C. an FECN packet

D. a BECN packet

Correct Answer: A. A Data Link Connection Identifier (DLCI) is a channel number which is attached to frame relay data frames to tell the network how to route the data. This 10-bit field defines the destination address of a packet. The address is local on a link-by-link basis.

5- Which three statements about networks are accurate? (Choose three.) (Source: Exploring the Functions of Networking)

A. Networks are used to transmit data in many kinds of environments, including homes, small businesses, and large enterprises.

B. A main office can have hundreds or even thousands of people who depend on network access to do their jobs.

C. A network is a connected collection of devices that can communicate with each other.

D. A main office usually has one large network to connect all users.

E. The purpose of a network is to create a means to provide all workers with access to all information and components that are accessible by the network. F. Remote locations cannot connect to a main office through a network.

Answer: A. Networks are critical in exchanging data in many environments. B. Without networks, productivity in the workforce would be significantly impacted. C. In today’s world, a connected collection of devices does not have to mean physically connected as wireless networks are ever increasing in popularity.

Incorrect Options: D. Networks are typically broken up based on things such as job responsibility.  For example, all engineers would be placed in one VLAN while all people in personnel would be placed in another VLAN.  Placing different users in different VLANs allows the network administrator to place access restrictions between the different VLANs. E. Not all workers need access to all information.  Networks are built to restrict access to those who have a need to know. F. Most businesses are geographically dispersed.  Without remote access business productivity would be severely impacted.

6- What is the purpose of a router? (Source: Exploring the Functions of Networking)

A. to interconnect networks and choose the best paths between them

B. to provide the connection points for the media

C. to serve as the end point in the network, sending and receiving data.

D. to provide the means by which the signals are transmitted from one networked device to another.

Correct Answer: A. A network device that forwards packets from one network to another. Based on internal routing tables, routers read each incoming packet and decide how to forward it. The destination address in the packets determines which interface on the router outgoing packets are directed to.

Incorrect Answer: B. A switch or hub is typically used to connect servers and workstations/PCs to the network. C. A switch typically sits on the edge of the network (access layer) to connect user workstations/PCs. D. Bits are sent from one network device to another.  There are numerous devices that communicate with each other to send data (i.e. switch, router).

 7- Method of dynamically associating a remote network layer address with a local DLCI

A. local access rate

B. SVC

C. CIR

D. LMI

E. Inverse ARP

Correct Answer: E. Method of dynamically associating a remote network layer address with a local DLCI.

Incorrect Answer: A. Clock speed of the connection to the Frame Relay cloud. B. VC that is dynamically established on demand and is torn down when transmission is complete. C. Maximum average data rate. D. Signaling standard between the router device and the Frame Relay switch that is responsible for managing the connection and maintaining status between the devices.

8- The binary number 11101000111 converted into a decimal number, using powers of 2, is _____. (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)

A. 1183

B. 1873

C. 1638

D. 1863

Correct Answer: D. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 111010001111 in binary

Incorrect Answer: A. Represents 1024 + 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 10010011111 in binary B. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 16 + 1 = 11101010001 in binary C. Represents 1024 + 512 + 64 + 32 + 4 + 2 = 11001100110 in binary

9- Which component of security ensures the data has not been tampered with? (Source: Introducing VPN Solutions)

A. Authentication

B. Integrity

C. Confidentiality

D. Anti-Playback

Correct Answer: B. Deals with protecting information and information systems from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction.

Período 30/01 à 03/02/2014

1- Which statement most accurately describes static and dynamic routes? (Source: Enabling Static Routing)

A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.

B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.

C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

Correct Answer:  B. Examples of dynamic routing protocols are RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF and IS-IS.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This is the opposite, Static routes are manually configured whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.  C. Whether a network is directly or not directly connected has no bearing on the type (static or dynamic) of route.  D. Whether a network is directly or not directly connected has no bearing on the type (static or dynamic) of route.

2- Using 6 subnet bits, how many usable hosts are created? (Source: Constructing a Network Addressing Scheme)

A. 58

B. 60

C. 62

D. 66

Correct Answer: C. Using 6 subnet bits, there are 64 addresses in the host field.  Of those addresses, the first address in binary is all zeros which is the network address while the last address in binary is all ones which is the broadcast address.  These two addresses are not useable as host addresses therefore leaving 64 – 2 = 62 available host addresses.

3- Which output from the show interface command indicates that PPP is configured properly? (Source: Establishing a Point-to-Point WAN Connection with PPP)

A. Encaps = PPP

B. PPP encapsulation

C. Encapsulation PPP

D. Encapsulation HDLC using PPP

Correct Answer:  C. This will be displayed if the encapsulation configured is PPP.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This is not a valid output from the show interface command.  B. This is not a valid output from the show interface command.  D. This is not a valid output from the show interface command.

4- Transmits data in labeled cells, frames, or packets  

A. Dedicated communication links

B. Circuit-switched communication links

C. Packet-switched communication links

Correct Answer:  C. Transmits data in labeled cells, frames, or packets.

Incorrect Answer:  A. Provides a preestablished WAN communications path from the customer premises through the provider network to a remote destination.  B. switched communication links – Dynamically establishes a dedicated virtual connection for voice or data between a sender and receiver.

5- Which feature does PPP use to encapsulate multiple protocols? (Source: Establishing a Point-to-Point WAN Connection with PPP)

A. NCP

B. LCP

C. IPCP

D. IPXCP

Correct Answer:  A. The Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase in the PPP link connection process is used for establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols such as IP, IPX or AppleTalk.

Incorrect Answer: B. Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used to automatically agree upon the encapsulation format options, handle varying limits on sizes of packets, detect a looped-back link and other common misconfiguration errors, and terminate the link. C. Internet Protocol Control Protocol (IPCP) is responsible for configuring, enabling, and disabling the IP protocol modules on both ends of the point-to-point link. D. In order to establish communications over a point-to-point link, each end of the PPP link must first send LCP packets to configure and test the data link. After the link has been established and optional facilities have been negotiated as needed by the LCP, PPP must send IPXCP packets to choose and configure the IPX network-layer protocol. Once IPXCP has reached the Opened state, IPX datagrams can be sent over the link.

6- Which three statements accurately describe WANs? (Choose three.) (Source: Understanding WAN Technologies)

A. The companies in which WANs are implemented usually own them.

B. WANs connect devices that are separated by wide geographic areas.

C. WANs use the services of carriers such as telephone companies, cable companies, satellite systems, and network providers.

D. WANs generally carry limited types of data at high speeds.

E. WANs use serial connections of various types to provide access to bandwidth.

F. WANs connect devices that are in a small geographic area.

Correct Answer: B. WANs connect devices that are separated by wide geographic areas. C. WANs use the services of carriers such as telephone companies, cable companies, satellite systems, and network providers. E. WANs use serial connections of various types to provide access to bandwidth.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. The companies in which WANs are implemented usually own them.  D. WANs generally carry limited types of data at high speeds.  F. WANs connect devices that are in a small geographic area.

7- Defines a standard ACL that will permit the addresses that are to be translated

A. ip nat inside

B. ip nat outside

C. access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

D. ip nat inside source list 1 pool nat-pool overload

E. ip nat pool nat-pool 192.1.1.17 192.1.1.20 netmask 255.255.255.240

Correct Answer: C. Defines a standard ACL that will permit the addresses that are to be translated.  

Incorrect Answer:  A. Marks an interface as connected to the inside.  B. Marks an interface as connected to the outside.  D. Defines a pool of inside global addresses that are to be allocated as needed.  E. Defines a pool of inside global addresses that are to be allocated as needed.

8- Which Cisco IOS command would you use to define a pool of global addresses to be allocated as needed? (Source: Scaling the Network with NAT and PAT)

A. ip nat pool

B. ip nat inside pool

C. ip nat outside pool

D. ip nat inside source static

Correct Answer: A. ip nat pool will allow you to define a pool of global addresses  

Incorrect Answer: B. This is not a valid IOS command. C. This is not a valid IOS command.

9- Which command is used on a Cisco router to determine if IP ACLs are applied to an Ethernet interface? (Source: Configuring and Troubleshooting ACLs)

A. show interfaces

B. show ACL

C. show ip interface

D. show ip access-list

Correct Answer: C. show ip interface

10- ACLs are processed from the top down. Which of the following is a benefit of placing more specific statements and statements expected to frequently match at the beginning of an ACL? (Source: Introducing ACL Operation)

A. It reduces processing overhead.

B. It enables the ACLs to be used for other routers.

C. It makes the ACLs easier to edit.

D. The less specific tests can be inserted more easily.

Correct Answer: A. Access lists stop searching once a match is found so placing more specific statements and statements that are expected to be frequently matched reduces processing overhead.

29/01/2014

1 – What does the command ip route 186.157.5.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.3 specify? (Source: Enabling StaticRouting)

A. Both 186.157.5.0 and 10.1.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.

B. The router should use network 186.157.5.0 to get to address 10.1.1.3.

C. You want the router to trace a route to network 186.157.5.0 via 10.1.1.3.

D. The router should use address 10.1.1.3 to get to devices on network 186.157.5.0.

Answers: D. This defines a static route for network 186.157.5.0 with a 24 bit mask to have a next hop of 10.1.1.3.

Incorrect Options:

A. Both 186.157.5.0 and 10.1.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.

B. The router should use network 186.157.5.0 to get to address 10.1.1.3.

C. You want the router to trace a route to network 186.157.5.0 via 10.1.1.3.

D. This defines a static route for network 186.157.5.0 with a 24 bit mask to have a next hop of 10.1.1.3.

2- Which command is used on a Cisco router to determine if IP ACLs are applied to an Ethernet interface?(Source: Configuring and Troubleshooting ACLs)

A. show interfaces

B. show ACL

C. show ip interface

D. show ip access-list

Correct Answer: C. show ip interface

23/01/2014

Pratique com nossas questões diárias!

1- Which four of the following can be protected with a password? (Choose 4) (Source: Route Security)
A. Console access
B. VTY access
C. TTY access
D. User level access
E. Exec level access

Correct Answers:
A. Console access
B. VTY access
C. TTY access
E. Exec level access

Período 07/10 à 20/10

20/10

What does the EIGRP message “neighbor not on common subnet” mean? (Source: Troubleshooting EIGRP)
A. There are duplicate EIGRP router IDs.
B. The two adjacent neighbor interfaces do not have addresses in the same IP network.
C. The MTU sizes on the two adjacent neighbor routers do not match.
D. The EIGRP network command was not in the classless format.

Correct Answer:
B.

19/10

If both the enable secret and the enable password commands are configured on your router, how do you get to the # prompt? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. Enter the enable secret command.
B. Enter the enable password command.
C. Enter either the enable secret or the enable password command.
D. Enter both the enable secret and the enable password commands.

Correct Answer:
A. The enable secret supersedes the enable password and will be used if both are set. You will enter the enable secret password after you enter the enable command.

Incorrect Answer:
B. This will not work since the enable secret password supersedes the enable password.
C. The enable secret password needs to be utilized as it takes precedence over the enable password.
D. The enable secret password needs to be utilized, not both.

18/10

How is the bandwidth requirement for EIGRP packets minimized? (Source: Implementing EIGRP)
A. by propagating only data packets
B. by propagating only hello packets
C. by propagating only routing table changes and hello packets
D. by propagating the entire routing table only to those routers affected by a topology change

Correct Answer: C. Unlike a traditional distance vector routing protocol, EIGRP after initial neighbor establishment, EIGRP only propagates routing table updates and hello packets.

17/10

It is best to use debug commands during periods of _____ network traffic and _____ users. (Source: Managing Cisco Devices)
A. lower, more
B. lower, fewer
C. higher, more
D. higher, fewer

Correct Answer:
B. Debug commands are very CPU intensive and can have a negative impact on operational networks therefore it is best to utilize them during periods of lower network traffic and fewer users.

16/10

Which component of the SPF algorithm is inversely proportional to bandwidth? (Source: Implementing OSPF)
A. link cost –
B. root cost
C. link state
D. hop count

Correct Answer:
A. The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is:
• cost= 10000 0000/bandwith in bps
For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 = 64 to cross a T1 line.
By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface by using the ip ospf cost <value> interface sub-command

15/10

This is the prompt for what configuration mode “Router(config-line)#” ?
A. Line
B. Router
C. Interface
D. Controller
E. Subinterface

Correct Answer:
A. The prompt for line configuration mode is “Router(config-line)#”.

Incorrect Answer:
B. The prompt for router configuration mode is “Router(config-router)#”.
C. The prompt for interface configuration mode is “Router(config-if)#”.
D. The prompt for controller configuration mode is “Router(config-controller)#”.
E. The prompt for subinterface configuration mode is “Router(config-subif)#”.

14/10

Which Cisco IOS command configures serial port in slot 0, port 1 on a modular router? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)
A. serial 0/1 interface
B. interface serial 0 1
C. interface serial 0/1
D. serial 0 1 interface

Correct Answer:
C. This command configures serial port in slot 0, port 1 on a modular router.

Incorrect Answer:
A. This is not a valid IOS command.
B. The serial interface is being improperly addressed. To address slot 0 port 1 the syntax is 0/1.
D. This is not a valid IOS command

13/10
Which Cisco IOS command merges a configuration file from NVRAM into the configuration in RAM? (Source: Managing Cisco Devices)

A. copy startup running
B. copy running-config tftp
C. copy startup-config RAM
D. copy NVRAM running-config

Correct Answer:
A. This command merges the startup configuration in NVRAM with the running configuration file in RAM.

Incorrect Answer:
B. This command copies the running configuration file to a TFTP server.
C. This is not a valid IOS command.
D. This command would need a to be “copy NVRAM:startup-config running-config” to be correct.

12/10

How should you power up a Cisco router? (Source: Starting a Router)
A. Press the Reset button.
B. Turn the power switch to “on.”
C. Connect the fiber cable to another router.
D. Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket.

Correct Answer:
B. Unlike some of the smaller switches, Cisco routers have a power switch which should be utilized to power up the router.

Incorrect Answer:
A. There is no reset button on a router.
C. This does nothing with respect to power.
D. This only provides a means to obtain power; the power switch still needs to be turned to “on”.

11/10

Which show command requires that you have privileged EXEC mode access? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)
A. show ip
B. show version
C. show running
D. show interfaces

Correct Answer:
C. Only available in privileged EXEC mode

Incorrect Answer:
A. This is an incomplete command.
B. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode.
D. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode.

10/10

Which show command requires that you have privileged EXEC mode access? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)
A. show ip
B. show version
C. show running
D. show interfaces

Correct Answer:
C. Only available in privileged EXEC mode

Incorrect Answer:
A. This is an incomplete command.
B. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode.
D. This command is available in either user EXEC or privileged EXEC mode

09/10

Which stage of the Cisco router bootup process verifies that all router components are operational? (Source: Managing Router Startup and Configuration)
A. POST
B. find IOS
C. find bootstrap
D. find configuration

Correct Answer:
A. This is done at Power-On Self Test (POST).

08/10

What does the copy tftp startup command do? (Source: Managing Cisco Devices)

A. copies the configuration in NVRAM to a TFTP server Which statement best describes what the user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure on a Cisco router? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)
A. You cannot configure anything; the user mode commands are used to display information.
B. The user EXEC mode allows you to perform global configuration tasks that affect the entire router.
C. The user EXEC mode commands allow you to enter a secret password so that you can configure the router.
D. The user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure interfaces, subinterfaces, lines, and routers.

Correct Answer:
A. After you log in to the router, you are automatically in user EXEC command mode. The EXEC commands available at the user level are a subset of those available at the privileged level. In general, the user EXEC commands allow you to connect to remote devices, change terminal settings on a temporary basis, perform basic tests, and list system information. No configuration changes are allowed from user EXEC mode.

Incorrect Answer:
B. You cannot make configuration changes from user EXEC mode.
C. You cannot make configuration changes fro user EXEC mode. Since setting the secret password is a configuration change, this answer cannot be correct.
D. You cannot make configuration changes from user EXEC mode.

07/10

How do you instruct a Cisco device to parse and execute an entered command? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)
A. Press the Send key
B. Press the Enter key
C. Add a space at end of the command
D. Wait 5 seconds after you enter the command

Correct Answer:
B. After a command is typed, pressing the Enter key executes the command.

Incorrect Answer:
A. There is no Send key.
C. This does nothing with respect to executing the command.
D. This does nothing.

06/10/2013

Which Cisco router component is used primarily to store the startup-config file? (Source: Managing Router Startup and Configuration)

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. NVRAM

D. flash memory

E. configuration register

Correct Answer:  C. Non-Volatile RAM is primarily used to store the startup configuration file.

Incorrect Answer:  A. RAM stores the active configuration file, IOS and tables / buffers.  B. ROM stores power-on diagnostics, bootstrap programs and operating system software.  D. Flash memory stores the IOS version.  E. The router has a 16-bit software register, which is written into the nonvolatile memory.  The processor configuration register is used for the following:  Change software configuration register settings  Setting and displaying the configuration register value  Force the system into the bootstrap monitor  Select a boot source and default boot filename  Enable or disable the Break function  Control broadcast addresses  Set the console terminal baud rate  Load operating software from ROM  Enable booting from TFTP server

05/10/2013

How could you obtain CDP information about a remote device that is not directly connected? (Source: Discovering Neighbors on the Network)  A. Use the command show cdp neighbors’ address.

B. Use the command show cdp neighbors’ hostname.

 C. Use SSH or Telnet to access a Cisco device connected to the target device.

D. It is not possible to obtain CDP information about a remote device.

Correct Answer:  D. CDP only works between directly attached devices.

Incorrect Answer:  A. The “show cdp” command with a neighbor’s address is not a valid IOS command.  B. The “show cdp” command with a neighbor’s hostname is not a valid IOS command.  C. CDP works at layer 2 of the OSI model and has nothing to do with Telnet or SSH to the target device.

04/10/2013

Which CLI prompt indicates that you are working in privileged EXEC mode? (Source: Introducing the Review Lab)

A. hostname#

B. hostname>

C. hostname-exec>

D. hostname-config

Correct Answer:  A. A “#” following the hostname indicates you are working in privileged exec mode.

Incorrect Answer:  B. A “>” following the hostname indicates you are in user EXEC mode.  C. This would be the prompt in user EXEC mode if the hostname was hostname-exec.  D. This is not a valid prompt.  All prompts either have a “>” or a “#” at the end.

03/10/2013

What are the two most common IPv4-to-IPv6 transition techniques? (Choose two.) (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. IPv6 NAT

B. dual stack

C. 6to4 tunnels

D. IPv6 mobile

Correct Answer:  B. dual stack  C. 6to4 tunnels

02/10/2013

Which two pieces of information are included in a CDP update packet? (Choose two.) (Source: Discovering Neighbors on the Network)

 A. platform

B. routing updates

C. device identifiers

D. MAC Address list  E. link speed

Correct Answer:  A. Platform TLV (Type-Length-Value) describes the hardware platform name of the device.  C. Device-ID TLV (Type-Length-Value) identifies the device name in the form of a character string.

Incorrect Answer:  B. Not part of a CDP update packet.  D. Not part of a CDP update packet.  E. Not part of a CDP update packet.

01/10/2013

How can you condense consecutive chunks of zeros in an IPv6 address? (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. with the “:::” symbol

B. by eliminating leading zeros

C. by replacing each four consecutive zeros with a single zero

D. with the “::” symbol

Correct Answer:  D. If one or more four-digit group(s) is 0000, the zeros may be omitted and replaced with two colons(::). For example, 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:0000:1428:57ab can be shortened to 2001:0db8::1428:57ab. Following this rule, any number of consecutive 0000 groups may be reduced to two colons, as long as there is only one double colon used in an address. Leading zeros in a group can also be omitted (as in ::1 for localhost).

30/09/2013

Which two statements are true regarding dual stack? (Choose two.) (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. A new API replaces gethostbyname and gethostbyaddr calls.

B. Tunneling is automatic.

C. Dual stack prefers IPv4 over IPv6.

D. You cannot use IPv4 while converting to IPv6.

E. The stack to use is chosen based on destination address.

Correct Answer:  A.  E.

29/09/2013

How can you most effectively summarize the IP range of addresses from 10.1.32.0 through 10.1.35.255?

A. 10.1.32.0/23

B. 10.1.32.0/22

C. 10.1.32.0/21

D. 10.1.32.0/20

Correct Answer:  B. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.35.255.

Incorrect Answer:  A. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.33.255  C. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.39.255  D. This will summarize 10.1.32.0 – 10.1.47.255

28/09/2013

Which address type from IPv4 was eliminated in IPv6? (Source: Transitioning to IPv6)

A. unicast

B. multicast

C. broadcast

D. everycast

Correct Answer:  C. Broadcast as a specific addressing type has been eliminated. Instead, support for multicast addressing has been expanded and made a required part of the protocol, and a new type of addressing called anycast has been implemented.

27/09/2013

What the two of the following are functions of DHCP? (Choose 2.) (Source: Using a Router as a DHCP Server)

A. DHCP dynamically assigns host names to client devices

B. DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to client devices.

C. DHCP dynamically assigns a default gateway to client devices.

 D. DHCP dynamically assigns security access levels to client devices.

Correct Answer:  B. DHCP dynamically assigns things such as IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to client devices.  C. DHCP dynamically assigns things such as IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to client devices.

Incorrect Answer:  A. DHCP does not assign host names to client devices.  D. DHCP does nothing with security access levels of client devices.

26/09/2013

What the two of the following are functions of DHCP? (Choose 2.) (Source: Using a Router as a DHCP Server)

A. DHCP dynamically assigns host names to client devices

B. DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to client devices.

C. DHCP dynamically assigns a default gateway to client devices.

D. DHCP dynamically assigns security access levels to client devices.

Correct Answer:  B. DHCP dynamically assigns things such as IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to client devices.  C. DHCP dynamically assigns things such as IP address, subnet mask and default gateway to client devices.

Incorrect Answer:  A. DHCP does not assign host names to client devices.  D. DHCP does nothing with security access levels of client devices.

25/09/2013

A subnet mask tells the router to look at which portions of an IP address? (Source: Constructing a Network Address Scheme)

A. mask and host bits

B. host and network bits

 C. host and subnet bits

D. network and subnet bits

Correct Answer:  D. The subnet mask tells the router which bits in the IP Address are part of the network and which bits are part of the host address.  With Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM) host bits can be borrowed (subnet bits) and become part of the network portion of the address.  Therefore the router looks at both the network and subnet bits.

 What are two characteristics of OSPF? (Choose two.) (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations )

A. hierarchical

B. proprietary

C. open standard

D. similar to RIP

E. distance vector protocol

Correct Answer:  A. OSPF uses area to group the network into different hierarchies.  C. OSPF version 2 is defined in RFC 2328.

Incorrect Answer:  B. OSPF is standards based.  D. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol whereas OSPF is a link state routing protocol.  E. OSPF is a link state routing protocol.

24/09/2013

 If a route for a network is in holddown and an update arrives from a neighboring router with the same metric as was originally recorded for the network, what does the router do? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)

A. ignores the update

B. increments the holddown timer

C. marks the network as “accessible” and removes the holddown timer

D. marks the network as “accessible” but keeps the holddown timer on

Correct Answer:  A. Holddown timers introduce a certain amount of skepticism to reduce the acceptance of bad routing information.  If the distance to a destination increases (for example, the hop count increases from 2 to 4), the router sets a holddown timer for that route. Until the timer expires, the router will not accept any new updates for the route.

 23/09/2013

 1-What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11000111? (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)

 A. 218

B. 199

C. 179

D. 208

Correct Answer:  B. Represents 128 + 64 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 11000111 in binary

Incorrect Answer:  A. Represents 128 + 64 + 16 + 8 + 2 = 11011010 in binary  C. Represents 128 + 32 + 16 + 2 + 1 = 10110011 in binary  D. Represents 128 + 64 + 16 = 11010000 in binary

 2- What does split horizon specify? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)

A. that information about a route should not be sent in any direction

B. that information about a route should not be sent back in the direction that the original information came from

C. that information about a route should always be sent back in the direction that the original information came from

D. that information about a route should be sent back only in the direction that the original information came from

Correct Answer:  B. The split horizon rule which prohibits a router from advertising a route back out the interface from which it was learned. Split horizon is one of the methods used to prevent routing loops due to the slow convergence times of distance-vector routing protocols.

Período 22 à 28/09/2013

1- What is the RSTP equivalent to the STP listening state? (Source: Improving Performance with Spanning Tree)

A. blocking
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding

Correct Answer:
C. In a stable topology with consistent port roles throughout the network, the RSTP ensures that every root port and designated port immediately transition to the forwarding state while all alternate and backup ports are always in the discarding state (equivalent to blocking in 802.1D). The port state controls the operation of the forwarding and learning processes.  The discarding state maps to three different states in 802.1D STP, namely: blocking, listening and disabled.

Incorrect Answer:
A. This is a stable state in which the data frames are NOT forwarded out the interface.
B. This is a transitory state where data frames are not forwarded.
D. This is a stable state where data frames are forwarded and MAC addresses are learned based on frames received.
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2- In which situation is an administrative distance required? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)
A. whenever static routes are defined
B. whenever dynamic routing is enabled
C. when the same route is learned via multiple routing sources
D. when multiple paths are available to the same destination and they are all learned via the same routing protocol

Correct Answer:
C. Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.

Incorrect Answer:
A. Static routes pointing to a next hop address have an administrative distance of 1 by default (except when pointing to the exit interface which will have an administrative distance of 0, same as a connected interface).

B. Each routing protocol has its own administrative distance assigned by default which can be changed if required.  Examples of default administrative distances are as follows:
RIP – 120
OSPF – 110
IRGP – 100
EIGRP – 90

D. Each routing protocol has its own administrative distance defined, therefore administrative distance is not required if multiple paths are available all learned via the same routing protocol.

3- The decimal number 10 converts to the binary number _____. (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)
A. 10
B. 1010
C. 110
D. 1000

Correct Answer:
B. Represents 8 + 2 = 10 in decimal

Incorrect Answer:
A. Represents 2 = 2 in decimal
C. Represents 4 + 2 = 6 in decimal
D. Represents 8 = 8 in decimal

4-  Which statement most accurately describes static and dynamic routes? (Source: Reviewing Routing Operations)
A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

Correct Answer:
B. Examples of dynamic routing protocols are RIP, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF and IS-IS.

Incorrect Answer:
A. This is the opposite, Static routes are manually configured whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
C. Whether a network is directly or not directly connected has no bearing on the type (static or dynamic) of route.
D. Whether a network is directly or not directly connected has no bearing on the type (static or dynamic) of route.

5- The binary number 11101000111 converted into a decimal number, using powers of 2, is _____. (Source: Understanding Binary Basics)
A. 1183
B. 1873
C. 1638
D. 1863

Correct Answer:
D. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 111010001111 in binary

Incorrect Answer:
A. Represents 1024 + 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 10010011111 in binary
B. Represents 1024 + 512 + 256 + 64 + 16 + 1 = 11101010001 in binary
C. Represents 1024 + 512 + 64 + 32 + 4 + 2 = 11001100110 in binary

Período 15 à 21/09/2013

You are using an application on your Windows 2000 client machines that provides error correction. You need a protocol to provide fast transport. Which protocol should your application use?
A. TCP

B. IP

C. UDP

D. SPX

E. AppleTalk

What would be the syntax to create a static route to the Atlantic City Fa0/1 network from the New Delhi router?
A. Router(config)#ip route 10.7.16.16/29 Fastethernet0/1

B. Router(config)#ip route 10.7.16.16 255.255.255.248 fastethernet0/0

C. Router(config)#ip route 10.7.16.16 255.255.255.248 10.98.43.66

D. Router(config)#ip route 10.7.16.16 mask 255.255.255.248 gw 10.98.43.66

E. Router(config)#ip route 10.7.16.16 255.255.240 fa0/1

Which component of the SPF algorithm is inversely proportional to bandwidth? (Source: Implementing OSPF)

A. link cost –

B. root cost

C. link state

D. hop count

Answer: C. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) relies on Layer 7 (Application) to handle error detection, correction, and control. Because of the low overhead, it is a very fast protocol.
A is incorrect, as TCP contains significant overhead to handle the reliable delivery of data. B is incorrect, as IP (Internet Protocol) is used at Layer 3 of the OSI Model to provide logical addressing. D is incorrect, as SPX, Novell’s proprietary connection-based protocol, provides reliable delivery and thus more latency. E is incorrect, as AppleTalk is a Layer 3 protocol that deals with logical addressing.

Answer is C. The syntax for a static route is ip route [subnet mask] {next-hop-address | interface] [distance].
Answer A is wrong because you can not use slash notation (/29) in the command. Answer B is wrong because the wrong interface is being used. Answer D is wrong because it is using the wrong syntax. Finally, Answer E is incorrect because it is using the wrong subnet mask.

Correct Answer:

A. The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is:

• cost= 10000 0000/bandwith in bps

For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 = 64 to cross a T1 line.

By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface by using the ip ospf cost interface sub-comman